<p>6:15 <i>And what agreement has Christ with Belial? Or what portion has a believer with an unbeliever?</i>- &quot;Belial&quot; was a specifically Jewish term for 'satan'. The fact Paul uses it here demonstrates the degree of Judaist influence upon the Corinthians. The Bible doesn't teach the existence of a cosmic Satan figure as believed in by first century Judaism; the word &quot;Belial&quot; never occurs again in the Bible. But (as he often does) Paul reasons with them from their perspective. It was unthinkable in Judaism to suggest that there was middle ground between Belial and God; but this in practice was how they were living. But when &quot;Belial&quot; occurs in the Old Testament, the Septuagint translates it as transgressor, impious, foolish or pest. It does not occur in the Septuagint as a proper name- i.e. 'Satan' as a personal cosmic being. <i>Belial </i>in Hebrew means 'worthless', and it seems that it became personified in Jewish thought, eventually being twisted by them into a term for thecosmic 'Satan' figure which they came to wrongly believe in. So it could be that Paul is putting 'Belial' for what the Old Testament would call &quot;sons of Belial&quot;, i.e. wicked men. They are then made parallel with &quot;unbelievers&quot;, just as &quot;Christ&quot; is matched by &quot;believers&quot;.</p>